1. Purchased a 2016 OB (CPO) from a dealer (back in 2020) and the carfax was / is clean
2. Fast forward, my son was involved in a minor accident (another party reversed into the car - very minor damage)
3. In addition to repairs, the counterparty insurance was going to compensate for the reduction in residual value due to this accident
4. but the insurance company (who is using Experian AutoCheck and Autocheck has a "policy report #) says "oh, you already had an accident back in 2016"
That's where I said "WTF"...then contacted the SoA (and forwarded the AutoCheck) who also worked with the dealer:
1. SoA basically said "not our problem as even the most recent CarFax doesn't indicate any accident, so go away"
2. "the previous owner may fixed the car somewhere who doesn't work with CarFax"
I may contact the dealer but I am sure I will still get the same old "oh CarFax didn't say anything". However, from my VERY BIASED point of view, the fact is this OB had an accident back in 2016. Is this even "legal" just because the dealer checked CarFax and not other source(s)? I feel like SoA's response was very elementary school student-like "oh he said so, hence it's true".
Not looking for a legal advice and just wanted to vent and get some opinions before I contact the dealer (gave up on SoA) and/or file a small claims or something (I really hate the fact that SoA didn't even say "oh sorry" but more like "CarFax said so and go away." (to be fair, there may be some legal implication of admitting "guilt")
I feel like I was dating a girl whom I developed loving relationship only to find out she had a hidden, shady history ;-)
2. Fast forward, my son was involved in a minor accident (another party reversed into the car - very minor damage)
3. In addition to repairs, the counterparty insurance was going to compensate for the reduction in residual value due to this accident
4. but the insurance company (who is using Experian AutoCheck and Autocheck has a "policy report #) says "oh, you already had an accident back in 2016"
That's where I said "WTF"...then contacted the SoA (and forwarded the AutoCheck) who also worked with the dealer:
1. SoA basically said "not our problem as even the most recent CarFax doesn't indicate any accident, so go away"
2. "the previous owner may fixed the car somewhere who doesn't work with CarFax"
I may contact the dealer but I am sure I will still get the same old "oh CarFax didn't say anything". However, from my VERY BIASED point of view, the fact is this OB had an accident back in 2016. Is this even "legal" just because the dealer checked CarFax and not other source(s)? I feel like SoA's response was very elementary school student-like "oh he said so, hence it's true".
Not looking for a legal advice and just wanted to vent and get some opinions before I contact the dealer (gave up on SoA) and/or file a small claims or something (I really hate the fact that SoA didn't even say "oh sorry" but more like "CarFax said so and go away." (to be fair, there may be some legal implication of admitting "guilt")
I feel like I was dating a girl whom I developed loving relationship only to find out she had a hidden, shady history ;-)